?????

I have a question for everyone.

I have had a few of these over the time of my studies of the scriptures and somehow they have been accidently been answered in a roundabout way when doing research. But there has been one that has failed in getting answered.

Why, in all of the old testament,and new testament, and even I believe in the Apocrypha, and also ‘Josephus’ writings(not finished it yet) that there is no references to Adam/Eve’s ‘sin’, and its heredity to whoever(Jews,mankind) as far as the condition that they were in? It seems that it is never brought up as far as a excuse as far as a reason. I wonder if it might of been brought up thru the philosophy of the time, if they were aware of the adam and eve scenario of creation. There just never seems like direct connection to this in everything that I have read, there is hint’s of it, but never an full blown announcement of the cause of their condition.

Which has left me with the next realization, that it wasn’t apart of society’s understanding of the issue with God, it was just that they had not decided to worship God the creator, and they have failed at being ‘Caesar of the World’.